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The following comes from;


"You Know Something is Wrong, When... An American Affidavit of Probable Cause.", by Anna Maria Riezinger & James Clinton Belcher, pgs 124-5.


Additional info comes from;


"Ecclesiastical Megalomania: The Economic and Political Thought of the Roman Catholic Church State", by John Robbins, pg 58.


First, when "slavery" began to be"legal" in the "United States".


The Conference of Governors - March 6, 1933 -


The United States of America, Inc. had 48 federal "State" franchises run under names styled like this: "State of Wisconsin" or "State of Ohio". These were identical to local franchises operated by any other national corporation. Think of McDonald's or Wendy's or Burger King, and you will have the picture.


FDR was "President" of The United States of America, Inc. and the "Governors" of these "States" were all franchise managers. On March 6, 1933, Roosevelt told them all that The United States of America (Incorporated) was bankrupt. The "Governors" all immediately "pledged... the good faith and credit" of "their States and the citizenry thereof".


Obviously, they could not pledge the good faith or the credit of the living American State Citizens nor of their organic states... and they didn't. They pledged the resources of their "States" --- the federal "State" franchises and their citizens --- the "United State Citizens" who happened to be residing on the land of the organic states.


That did not prevent them from making full use of their semantic deceit and laying false claims and titles under color of law against the land and private property of American States and American State Citizens.


By 1940, the "Congress" figured out a way of redefining American State Citizens as US corporations, that is, as property belonging to the Congress.


Back in 1871, the corporate "Congress" claimed to own all United States corporations and their assets. By"redefining" you and your assets as a corporation, they could enslave "you",  - literally own "you", and still avoid the prohibitions against slavery, because there is no law that forbids enslavement of corporations.


Senate Document 43, 73rd Congress, 1st Session, states;


"The ownership (trusteeship) of all property is in the State (which "State"); individual so-called "ownership"is only by virtue of Government, i.e., law, amounting to mere user, and use must be in accordance with law and subordinate to the necessities of the State."


Now, from John Robbins' work referenced above;


Pope Pius XI in his "Quadragesimo Anno" (1931) wrote;


"Under Fascism, property owner may keep their property titles and deeds, but the use of their property is, as Leo XIII wrote, "Common".


Fascism is the form of Socialism that retains the forms and trappings of Capitalism, but not it's substance. Under Fascism, property titles and deeds are intact, but the institution of private property has disappeared. Government regulation and mandates have replaced it. For this distinction between legal ownership and actual use, the Fascists owe a debt to the Roman Church State."


And so it goes, Ladies and Gentlemen...


 


 


 


 

Walter D.
this sounds like a book i should read
  • December 20, 2015
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Randall Covey, Russian Hacker
The John Robbins work? I highly suggest it to any and all... both works, actually.
  • December 20, 2015
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Wanda Hope Carter
I don't know what to say right now - this is overwhelming and I'm already overwhelmed by my own circumstances. I really do appreciate you posting this info! Maybe some day I can stop and breathe for a minute long enough to wrap my head around it.
  • December 21, 2015
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Randall Covey, Russian Hacker
You take care of yourself, first. We'll be here for ya, as much as we humanly can.
  • December 21, 2015
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